· H2 Mathematics — Ten-Year Series, worked ← All 10 questions

2023 A-Level · Paper 2 · Question 10

2023 H2 Maths Paper 2, Question 10

Binomial Distribution 15 marks Scenarios involving binomial distribution
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Part (a)(i)

2 marks

Assumption 1: Each ornament is faulty independently of whether any other ornament is faulty.

Assumption 2: Each ornament has the same, constant probability of being faulty.

To check your answer: a binomial model needs a fixed number of independent trials, each with the same probability of “success” (here, “faulty”) — the two assumptions above supply exactly independence and constant probability. ✓

Part (a)(ii)

1 mark

Let XX be the number of faulty ornaments in a day: X∼B(50, 0.04)X \sim B(50,\ 0.04).

E(X)=np=50(0.04)=2E(X) = np = 50(0.04) = 2
Var(X)=np(1−p)=50(0.04)(0.96)=1.92\text{Var}(X) = np(1 - p) = 50(0.04)(0.96) = 1.92
E(X)−Var(X)=2−1.92=0.08  (shown)E(X) - \text{Var}(X) = 2 - 1.92 = 0.08\ \ \text{(shown)}
To check your answer: in general mean−variance=np−np(1−p)=np2\text{mean} - \text{variance} = np - np(1 - p) = np^{2}; here np2=50(0.04)2=0.08np^{2} = 50(0.04)^{2} = 0.08, matching directly. ✓

Part (a)(iii)

1 mark
P(X≤2)=0.677 (3 s.f.)P(X \leq 2) = 0.677\ \left( 3\text{ s.f.} \right)

Explanation: by GC, summing the B(50, 0.04)B(50,\ 0.04) probabilities from X=0X = 0 to X=2X = 2 gives P(X≤2)=0.676714…≈0.677P(X \leq 2) = 0.676714\ldots \approx 0.677.

Part (a)(iv)

3 marks

Approach

“No more than 2 faulty ornaments” is itself a Bernoulli-type event with the probability found in (iii), repeated independently over the 5 days of the week. This calls for a second binomial distribution built on top of the first, not a fresh calculation from the ornament counts.

Let YY be the number of days, out of 5, on which no more than 2 faulty ornaments are produced. Each day is independent with the same probability P(X≤2)=0.676714P(X \leq 2) = 0.676714 (unrounded value, from (iii)), so

Y∼B(5, 0.676714)Y \sim B(5,\ 0.676714)

We require P(Y≥3)P(Y \geq 3), converting to cumulative form first:

P(Y≥3)=1−P(Y≤2)P(Y \geq 3) = 1 - P(Y \leq 2)

By GC, P(Y≤2)=0.195219P(Y \leq 2) = 0.195219, so

P(Y≥3)=1−0.195219=0.805 (3 s.f.)P(Y \geq 3) = 1 - 0.195219 = 0.805\ \left( 3\text{ s.f.} \right)
To check your answer: the per-day probability 0.6770.677 is above 0.50.5, and 33 out of 55 is close to the expected count 5(0.677)≈3.385(0.677) \approx 3.38, so a fairly high probability is reasonable. ✓

Part (a)(v)

2 marks

Approach

the week’s total fault count is a sum of 55 independent B(50, 0.04)B(50,\ 0.04) variables. Since they share the same pp, this sum is itself binomial with n=5×50n = 5 \times 50, rather than a normal approximation or a fresh distribution.

Let TT be the total number of faulty ornaments produced in the 5-day week. Since the 5×50=2505 \times 50 = 250 ornaments made in the week are each independently faulty with probability 0.040.04,

T∼B(250, 0.04)T \sim B(250,\ 0.04)
P(T≤10)=0.583 (3 s.f.)P(T \leq 10) = 0.583\ \left( 3\text{ s.f.} \right)

Explanation: by GC, P(T≤10)=0.583057…≈0.583P(T \leq 10) = 0.583057\ldots \approx 0.583.

To check your answer: E(T)=250(0.04)=10E(T) = 250(0.04) = 10, so P(T≤10)P(T \leq 10) sitting just above 0.50.5 is consistent with 1010 being the mean of TT. ✓

Part (b)

6 marks

Approach

we cannot compare P(Ming accepts)P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right) and P(Lu accepts)P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right) by evaluating them at particular values of pp — the question asks for all 0<p<10 < p < 1. The way in is to write both probabilities as functions of pp, subtract, and factorise the difference so that its sign is visible for every pp in the interval.

Let p=P(pen is not faulty)p = P\left( \text{pen is not faulty} \right), so a pen is faulty with probability 1−p1 - p, where 0<p<10 < p < 1.

Mr Lu’s method: Let XLX_{L} be the number of faulty pens in his sample of 6, so XL∼B(6, 1−p)X_{L} \sim B(6,\ 1 - p). He accepts the box if XL=0X_{L} = 0 or XL=1X_{L} = 1.

P(Lu accepts)P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right)
=P(XL=0)+P(XL=1)= P\left( X_{L} = 0 \right) + P\left( X_{L} = 1 \right)
=p6+(61)(1−p)p5= p^{6} + \binom{6}{1}(1 - p)p^{5}
=p6+6(1−p)p5= p^{6} + 6(1 - p)p^{5}
=p5[p+6(1−p)]= p^{5}\left\lbrack p + 6(1 - p) \right\rbrack
=p5(6−5p)= p^{5}(6 - 5p)

Mrs Ming’s method: Let X1X_{1} be the number of faulty pens in her first sample of 3, so X1∼B(3, 1−p)X_{1} \sim B(3,\ 1 - p).

If X1=0X_{1} = 0 (probability p3p^{3}), she accepts immediately. If X1=1X_{1} = 1 (probability (31)(1−p)p2=3(1−p)p2\binom{3}{1}(1 - p)p^{2} = 3(1 - p)p^{2}), she takes a second sample of 3, accepting only if that sample has 0 faulty pens (probability p3p^{3}). If X1=2X_{1} = 2 or 33, she rejects.

P(Ming accepts)P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right)
=p3+[3(1−p)p2]×p3= p^{3} + \left\lbrack 3(1 - p)p^{2} \right\rbrack \times p^{3}
=p3+3(1−p)p5= p^{3} + 3(1 - p)p^{5}
To check your answer: at p=0.9p = 0.9, P(Lu accepts)≈0.886P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right) \approx 0.886 and P(Ming accepts)≈0.906P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right) \approx 0.906, so Mrs Ming does accept a greater proportion at this value. ✓

To compare the two methods for every pp, we consider the difference P(Ming accepts)−P(Lu accepts)P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right) - P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right).

P(Ming accepts)−P(Lu accepts)P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right) - P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right)
=p3+3(1−p)p5−p5(6−5p)= p^{3} + 3(1 - p)p^{5} - p^{5}(6 - 5p)
=p3[1+3(1−p)p2−p2(6−5p)]= p^{3}\left\lbrack 1 + 3(1 - p)p^{2} - p^{2}(6 - 5p) \right\rbrack
=p3[1+3p2−3p3−6p2+5p3]= p^{3}\left\lbrack 1 + 3p^{2} - 3p^{3} - 6p^{2} + 5p^{3} \right\rbrack
=p3(2p3−3p2+1)= p^{3}\left( 2p^{3} - 3p^{2} + 1 \right)

Factorising 2p3−3p2+12p^{3} - 3p^{2} + 1: substituting p=1p = 1 gives 2−3+1=02 - 3 + 1 = 0, so (p−1)(p - 1) is a factor.

2p3−3p2+1=(p−1)(2p2−p−1)2p^{3} - 3p^{2} + 1 = (p - 1)\left( 2p^{2} - p - 1 \right)

The quadratic factor 2p2−p−12p^{2} - p - 1 has discriminant 1+8=91 + 8 = 9, giving roots 1±34=1\frac{1 \pm 3}{4} = 1 or −12- \frac{1}{2}, so

2p2−p−1=(p−1)(2p+1)2p^{2} - p - 1 = (p - 1)(2p + 1)
To check your answer: expanding (p−1)(2p+1)=2p2+p−2p−1=2p2−p−1(p - 1)(2p + 1) = 2p^{2} + p - 2p - 1 = 2p^{2} - p - 1, matching. ✓

Combining the two factorisations,

2p3−3p2+1=(p−1)(p−1)(2p+1)=(p−1)2(2p+1)2p^{3} - 3p^{2} + 1 = (p - 1)(p - 1)(2p + 1) = (p - 1)^{2}(2p + 1)

so

P(Ming accepts)−P(Lu accepts)=p3(p−1)2(2p+1)P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right) - P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right) = p^{3}(p - 1)^{2}(2p + 1)

For 0<p<10 < p < 1: p3>0p^{3} > 0 since p>0p > 0; (p−1)2>0(p - 1)^{2} > 0 since p≠1p \neq 1 on this open interval; and 2p+1>02p + 1 > 0 since p>0p > 0. Hence the product p3(p−1)2(2p+1)>0p^{3}(p - 1)^{2}(2p + 1) > 0 for all 0<p<10 < p < 1.

To check your answer: at p=0.5p = 0.5, p3(p−1)2(2p+1)=(0.125)(0.25)(2)=0.0625p^{3}(p - 1)^{2}(2p + 1) = (0.125)(0.25)(2) = 0.0625, matching the direct computation 0.171875−0.109375=0.06250.171875 - 0.109375 = 0.0625. ✓

∴\therefore P(Ming accepts)−P(Lu accepts)>0P\left( \text{Ming accepts} \right) - P\left( \text{Lu accepts} \right) > 0 for all 0<p<10 < p < 1, so Mrs Ming always accepts a strictly greater proportion of boxes than Mr Lu does, regardless of the value of pp.

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